Did the Particle Go Through the Two Slits, or Did the Wave Function?
312 comments
·March 13, 2025nine_k
cjfd
This is incorrect. There are particles. They are excitations in the field.
There still is the 'split particle paradox' because QFT does not solve the measurement problem.
The 'some kind of interaction of graph nodes' by which I am guessing you are referring to Feynman diagrams are not of a fundamental nature. They are an approximation known as 'perturbation theory'.
movpasd
I think what they must be referring to is the fact that particles are only rigorously defined in the free theory. When coupling is introduced, how the free theory relates to the coupled theory depends on heuristic/formal assumptions.
We're leaving my area of understanding, but I believe Haag's theorem shows that the naïve approach, where the interacting and free theories share a Hilbert space, completely fails -- even stronger than that, _no_ Hilbert space could even support an interacting QFT (in the ways required by scattering theory). This is a pretty strong argument against the existence of particles except as asymptotic approximations.
Since we don't have consensus on a well-defined, non-perturbative gauge theory, mathematically speaking it's difficult to make any firm statements about what states "exist" in absolute. (I'm certain that people working on the various flavours of non-perturbative (but still heuristic) QFT -- like lattice QFT -- would have more insights about the internal structure of non-asymptotic interactions.)
westurner
Though it doesn't resolve whether a "quanta" is a particle or a measurable convergence of waves, Electrons and Photons are observed with high speed imaging.
"Quantum microscopy study makes electrons visible in slow motion" https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40981054
There exist single photon emitters and single photon detectors.
Qualify that there are single photons if there are single photon emitters:
Single-photon source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Single-photon_source
QFT is not yet reconciled with (n-body) [quantum] gravity, which it has 100% error in oredicting. random chance. TOD
IIRC, QFT cannot explain why superfluid helium walks up the sides of a container against gravity, given the mass of each particle/wave of the superfluid and of the beaker and the earth, sun, and moon; though we say that gravity at any given point is the net sum of directional vectors acting upon said given point, or actually gravitational waves with phase and amplitude.
You said "gauge theory",
"Topological gauge theory of vortices in type-III superconductors" https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41803662
From https://news.ycombinator.com/context?id=43081303 .. https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=43310933 :
> Probably not gauge symmetry there, then.
codethief
> This is a pretty strong argument against the existence of particles except as asymptotic approximations.
I think it's also a pretty strong argument against the mathematical well-definedness of typical (interacting) QFTs in the first place.
gus_massa
Perhaps a better way to say it is that particles are not longer small balls of dirt [1], but a mathematical construction that is useful to generate an infinite serie [2] to calculate the results.
Since in some conditions these mathematical tricks behave very similar to small balls of dirt, we reused the word "particle" and even the names we used when we thought they were small balls of dirt.
[11] We probably never thought they were made of dirt, and in any case the magnetic moment is the double of the value of the small ball of dirt model.
[2] That has so many infinites that would make a mathematician cry.
cjfd
Note that particles are not just for perturbation theory. There is a particle whenever there exists a particle annihilation/creation field configuration. A proton is a particle so writing down its creation/annihilation field configuration is in theory possible, though maybe not in practice.
Another point is that infinities do not necessarily make mathematicians cry. Abraham Robinson is quite pleased with them. It seems a possible hypothesis that at least some QFT are mathematically well-defined using non-standard analysis. Where 'some QFT' at least renormalizable and perhaps also asymptotically free. I don't know enough about it to know how the Haag theorem, mentioned in another comment impacts this.
DiogenesKynikos
Particles are an approximation to the actual behavior of the field, and are used in perturbation theory to calculate the more complicated field behavior.
This works well when interactions are weak. Electrons do not couple strongly to the electromagnetic field, so it makes sense to view electrons as particles. However, quarks couple very strongly to the strong force (hence the name), so the perturbative approach breaks down, and it makes less sense to view quarks as particles.
drpossum
So in a non-perturbative QFT calculation which has a well defined particle-number operator, that's just "an approximation" within the theory? What is it approximating?
WhitneyLand
False in multiple ways.
QFT doesn’t discard local fields and replace them with only nonlocal graph nodes.
Maybe this is coming from some speculative quantum gravity ideas.
GoblinSlayer
>There's no locality.
How so? QFT is Lorentz invariant. Even has such a thing as the norm flux.
nine_k
My bad; QFT actually postulates locality. I was thinking about the casual set theory which strives to solve some of the QFT's difficulties, and where locality is an emergent / statistical phenomenon rather than a postulated condition.
Ygg2
> Lorentz invariance is also violated in QFT assuming non-zero temperature.
r0uv3n
If you couple your system to a heat path that is at rest wrt a specific Lorentz frame, you of course lose Lorentz incariance. On the other hand the lagrangian of the standard model itself is to my knowledge fully Lorentz invariant.
GoblinSlayer
I don't know what they talk about there, but it sounds like some kind of thermodynamic approximation is involved there. Does thermodynamics survive Lorentz transformation?
soup10
just because QFT follows an internal logic, doesn't mean the jump from macro physics to quantum physics itself is logical. In my opinion we still don't have a logical explanation for why the model changes so dramatically from classical to quantum physics.
perlgeek
The Universe is fundamentally quantum in nature; if anything, we'd need a model that explains why classical physics works so well most of the time.
pinkmuffinere
As a naïve fool with no understanding of quantum physics, I want to take a stab at this! Here’s my hypothesis:
Consider a world in which everything is “very quantum”, and there are no easy approximations which can generally be relied on. In such a world, our human pattern-matching behavior would be really useless, and “human intelligence” in the form we’re familiar with will have no evolutionary advantage. So the only setting in which we evolve to be confused by this phenomena is one where simple approximations do work for the scales we occupy.
Sincerely, I don’t think this argument is super good. But it’s fun to propose, and maybe slightly valid.
xtacy
We do have a model. That’s statistical physics.
Any standard course goes over various derivations of classical physics laws (Newtonian dynamics) from quantum mechanics.
soup10
i started writing a response about how the human brain is designed to operate in an environment where classical physics is the norm, so we need to bridge the deviations from that if we are to really understand the world. But I don't know how much that's really true if you consider neural biology and I won't claim to know where quantum stops and classical begins as it relates to brain function.
vonneumannstan
>In my opinion we still don't have a logical explanation for why the model changes so dramatically from classical to quantum physics.
I think you have this backwards. QM IS the law of the universe and Classical Physics is just a high mass low energy approximation of it. In any case there doesn't need to be a logical explanation at all, the laws of physics are as they are. Why is the value of the fine structure constant what it is?
pklausler
s/FOR/DO/
simpaticoder
Observation is more important than model; if we take the model too seriously, we can be led astray. It's much like extending a metaphor too far.
We observe double-slit diffraction and model it with the wave-function. This doesn't preclude other models, and some of those models will be more intuitive than others. The model we use may only give us a slice of insight. We can model a roll of the dice with a function with 6 strong peaks and consider the state of the dice in superposition. The fact that the model is a continuous real function is an artifact of the model, a weakness not a strength. We are modeling a system who's concrete state is unknown between measurements (the dice is fundamentally "blurred"), and we keep expecting more from the model than it wants to give.
Programmers may have better models, actually. The world is a tree where the structure of a node births a certain number of discrete children at a certain probability, one to be determined "real" by some event (measurement), but it says little about "reality". The work of the scientist is to enumerate the children and their probabilities for ever more complex parent nodes. The foundations of quantum mechanics may be advanced by new experiments, but not, I think, by staring at the models hoping for inspiration.
jfengel
The models of quantum mechanics have already withstood experiments to a dozen decimal places. You aren't going to find departures just by banging around in your garage; you just can't generate enough precision.
The only way forward at this point is to start with the model and design experiments focusing on some specific element that strikes you as promising. Unless you're staring at the model you're just guessing, and it's practically impossible that you're going to guess right.
simpaticoder
>You aren't going to find departures just by banging around in your garage
This kind of rhetoric saddens me. Someone says "design an experiment" and you jump to the least charitable conclusion. That people do this is perhaps understandable, but to do it and not get pushback leads to it happening more and more, to the detriment of civil conversation.
No, the experiment I had in mind would take place near the Schwarzchild radius of a black hole. This would require an enormous effort, and (civilizational) luck to defy the expectations set by the Drake equation/Fermi paradox. It's something to look forward to, even if not in our lifetimes!
exe34
> No, the experiment I had in mind would take place near the Schwarzchild radius of a black hole
I think the GP was thinking of more practical experiments, not science fiction.
SiempreViernes
I mean you did just suggest that classical QM can be supplanted by your heavily underspecified finite(?)-state model for which you provide essentially no details, you must admit that's pretty crank-y behaviour.
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CooCooCaCha
This is one of the reasons I believe science and technology as a whole are on an S-curve. This is obviously not a precise statement and more of a general observation, but each step on the path is a little harder than the last.
Whenever a physics theory gets replaced it becomes even harder to make an even better theory. In technology low hanging fruit continues to get picked and the next fruit is a little higher up. Of course there are lots of fruits and sometimes you miss one and a solution turns out to be easier than expected but overall every phase of technology is a little harder and more expensive.
This actually coincides with science. Technology is finding useful configurations of science, and practically speaking there are only so many useful configurations for a given level of science. So the technology S-curve is built on the science S-curve.
somenameforme
I don't think this is strictly true. Rather it seems that the problem is that we, at some point, invariably assume the truth of something that is false, which then makes it really difficult to move beyond that because we're working off false premises, and relatively few people are going out of there way to go back in time and challenge/rework every single assumption, especially when those assumptions are supported by decades (if not centuries) of 'progress.'
An obvious example of this is the assumption of the geocentric universe. That rapidly leads to ever more mind-boggling complex phenomena like multitudes of epicycles, planets suddenly turning around mid-orbit, and much more. It turns out the actual physics are far more simple, but you have to get passed that flawed assumption.
In more modern times relativity was similar. Once it became clear that the luminiferous aether was wrong, and that the universe was really friggin weird, all sorts of new doors opened for easy access. The rapid decline in progress in modern times would seem most likely to suggest that something we are taking as a fundamental assumption is probably wrong, rather than that the next door is just unimaginably difficult to open. This is probably even more true given the vast numbers of open questions for which we have defacto answers, but yet they seem to defy every single test of their correctness.
---
All that said, I don't disagree that technology may be on an s curve, but simply because I think the constraints on 'things' will be far greater than the constraints on knowledge. The most sophisticated naval vessel of modern times would look impressive but otherwise familiar to a seaman of hundreds or perhaps even thousands of years ago. Even things like the engines wouldn't be particularly hard to explain because they would have known full well that a boiling pot of water can push off its top, which is basically 90% of the way to understanding how an engine works.
xvector
It's an S-curve only so long as intelligence doesn't increase exponentially as well. What would the story look like if an ASI existed?
teaearlgraycold
To be fair quantum mechanics was invented by guessing that energy might be quantized. It just happened to model the universe well.
oneshtein
Waves are quantized (one wave, two waves, ...), so energy transfers by waves are quantized too.
jiggawatts
One particular model: the electron g-factor.
Now go look up how precise a prediction the same model makes for the muon g-factor.
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whatshisface
That is true for classical probability, but the idea that unknown quantities are determining the outcomes in quantum mechanics has been disproven in the event of the speed of light being a true limit on communication speed. This is known as, "Bell's theorem."
TheOtherHobbes
Bell's Theorem disproves local hidden variables.
Reality can be interpreted as non-local. There has been no conclusive proof it isn't.
c isn't a limit on the kind of non-locality that is required, because you can have a mechanism that appears to operate instantaneously - like wavefunction collapse in a huge region of space - but still doesn't allow useful FTL comms.
Bell's Theorem has no problem with this. Some of the Bohmian takes on non-locality have been experimentally disproven, but not all of them.
The Copenhagen POV is that particles do not necessarily exist between observations. Only probabilities exist between observations.
So there has to be some accounting mechanism somewhere which manages the probabilities and makes sure that particle-events are encouraged to happen in certain places/times and discouraged in others, according to what we call the wavefunction.
This mechanism is effectively metaphysical at the moment. It has real consequences and was originally derived by analogy from classical field theory, with a few twists. But it is clearly not the same kind of "object" as either a classical field or particle.
movpasd
There may be no conclusive proof, but it's a philosophically tough pill to swallow.
Non-locality means things synchronise instantly across the universe, can go back in time in some reference frames, and yet reality _just so happens_ to censure these secret unobservable wave function components, trading quantum for classical probability so that it is impossible for us to observe the difference between a collapsed and uncollapsed state. Is this really tenable?
Strip back the metaphysical baggage and consider the basic purpose of science. We want a theoretical machine that is supplied a description about what is happening now and gives you a description of what will happen in the future. The "state" of a system is just that description. A good _scientific_ theory's description of state is minimal: it has no redundancy, and it has no extraneous unobservables.
mnky9800n
Why isn’t the accounting mechanism a quantum extension of the principle of least action?
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cryptonector
> The foundations of quantum mechanics may be advanced by new experiments, but not, I think, by staring at the models hoping for inspiration.
To come up with new experiments that might shed light it certainly helps to spend time exploring the models to come up with new predictions that they might make. Sure, one can also come up with new experiments based only on existing observations, but it's most interesting when we can make predictions, as testing those advances some theories and crushes others.
GoblinSlayer
A model is supposed to be accurate. When it's inaccurate, you should understand where and how it's inaccurate and not just become agnostic.
simpaticoder
The trouble with QM is with it's interpretations, not with the accuracy of it's predictions. The latter informs interest in the former. QM works, but the models imply that nature is neither "local" - e.g. entanglement experiments undermine hidden-variables, nor "real" - e.g. a particle does not have a momentum (or position) until you measure it. These physical properties are not just hidden, they are undefined. These implications fly in the face of basic macroscale intuitions about what "physical reality" means, which makes it interesting. Inconsistency is a signal that we have discoveries yet to make. Note that "Many worlds people" think there is no inconsistency - my sketch of a model is fully consistent with that interpretation, if you wish, by simply assign a new universe to every child node in which the node is reached.
GoblinSlayer
What you say doesn't quite correspond to quantum physics as it's known. Quantum physics is quantitative and precise, so it's difficult to say there's something undefined there. It doesn't suggest nonlocality, absence of hidden variables means only absence of hidden variables. It doesn't suggest antirealism, if only due to precision, you can say it doesn't work how you want, but at worst this makes it unintuitive. Conversely Dirac formalism works as if quantum state exists in itself in precise form, which has a good compatibility with basic macroscale intuitions about what "physical reality" means.
nick3443
Your 6-sided dice example sort of brings some focus to his argument of 'its not a real wave it's a math wave ". The result of a 6-sided dice roll exists more in our minds as "math dice" because for most people, if you rolled and it fell in a sewer, lost etc, you wouldn't consider the roll complete until you grabbed a different dice and rolled it. More attached to the person rolling it and the resulting 'what does the number affect'.
scythe
>The fact that the model is a continuous real function is an artifact of the model, a weakness not a strength.
The wave function is the square root of a probability distribution. The wavefunction is a continuous real function of position because position is modeled as a continuous real variable. The idea of the wavefunction as a function of position is generally supported by the fact that it can be used to predict the measurement results of diffraction experiments like the double-slit experiment, but also practically the whole field of X-ray diffraction.
There is not just one experimental result that is explained by wavefunctions. There are widely used measurement techniques whose outcomes are calculated according to the quantum properties of matter — like X-ray diffraction and Raman scattering — which are widely considered to be extremely reliable. There is a good reason to explain the model of reality expressed by the equations as clearly as possible, because we want people to be able to use the equations.
Plenty of people (though certainly not all) expect quantum mechanics to be eventually modified to have a consistent theory of gravity. But physicists have experience with this. Special relativity and classical quantum mechanics were both more complex than Newtonian (classical) mechanics, and quantum field theory is more complicated than either. General relativity is substantially more involved than special relativity. It is likely that further extensions will continue to get worse.
The model of reality taught by Newtonian (classical) mechanics is also still widely discussed and used in introductory physics courses and many areas of physics (such as fluid dynamics) and engineering. This model also discusses position on the real line. Even though classical mechanics had to be modified, the use of Cartesian coordinates and real numbers turned out to be durable.
Usually the finitists will formally "rescue" countability by suggesting that the world could exist on the computable numbers, which are countable and invariant under computable rotations. But the computable numbers are a very unsatisfying model of reality, and have a lot of the same "weirdness" as the real numbers. Therefore they suggest that some other model must exist without giving a lot of specifics. Why this should be somehow helpful and not injurious to the pedagogy of physics is not clear.
nimish
Finally! Too much of physics is obsessed with the map and not the territory.
This is how you get the tortured reasoning that views measurement and observation as somehow different. Even einstein struggled.
GeekyBear
Doesn't the difference between measurement and observation stem from an extension of the double slit experiment discussed in thus artucle?
It you place a detector on one of the two slits in the prior experiment, (so that you measure which slit each individual photon goes through) the interference pattern disappears.
If you leave the detector in place, but don't record the data that was measured, the interference pattern is back.
saithound
> If you leave the detector in place, but don't record the data that was measured, the interference pattern is back.
This is not remotely true. It looks like you read an explanation of the quantum eraser experiment that was either flawed or very badly written, and you're now giving a mangled account of it.
lukev
I have heard similar things but this is THE most deeply weird result and I’ve never heard a good explanation for the setup.
A lot of people pose it as a question of pure information: do you record the data or not?
But what does that mean? The “detector” isn’t physically linked to anything else? Or we fully physically record the data and we look at it in one case vs deliberately not looking in the other? Or what if we construct a scenario where it is “recorded” but encrypted with keys we don’t have?
People are very quick to ascribe highly unintuitive, nearly mystical capabilities with respect to “information” to the experiment but exactly where in the setup they define “information” to begin to exist is unclear, although it should be plain to anyone who actually understands the math and experimental setup.
kevinventullo
Do you have a reference for that last paragraph?
alserio
I'm not a physicist, but that doesn't really sound right. Might I ask you a reference or an explanation?
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lmm
The wave went through the two slits, for any normal everyday definition of "go through". Yes, you can say "the wave function is just a function that assigns an amplitude for the particle's presence at every (x, y, z, t) co-ordinate, it doesn't go anywhere". But that's no more valid than saying that a regular water wave is "just a function that assigns a height to the water at every (x, y, t) co-ordinate, it doesn't go anywhere".
There is a pattern to the wavefunction, where the amplitude at (x+delta, y, z, t+delta) is closely related to the amplitude at (x, y, z, t). (Specifically, it's that amplitude rotated by delta times the mass of the particle). Or, unless you're being wilfully obtuse, the wave packet moves from x to x+delta in time t to t+delta, rotating as it goes as quantum mechanical waves do.
You can, if you really want, insist in Zeno's paradox fashion that nothing ever goes anywhere, that things just exist at given places and times, and in a certain sense that's true. But there's nothing QM-specific about that, and it's misleading to complicate a discussion of QM by claiming so. If we allow that things can move through space, and waves can move through space, then the wave moves through the two slits in the normal sense of all those concepts.
I wish people would stop going out of their way to make QM sound confusing/weird/"spooky". Most of it is just normal wave behaviour for which you can observe exactly the same thing with everyday classical waves.
tsimionescu
> But that's no more valid than saying that a regular water wave is "just a function that assigns a height to the water at every (x, y, t) co-ordinate, it doesn't go anywhere".
I think this is a very important distinction actually. A wave amplitude represents an actual displacement in some medium, and waves interfere constructively/destructively because they both move the medium in the same/opposite direction at the same time at the same location. So when a water wave gets pushed through two slits, it breaks into two separate water waves, one coming from each slit, and those two waves push the water up and down at the same time at different locations.
But wavefunctions are very much not like that. A wavefunction amplitude does not represent a displacement in any kind of medium. They represent a measure of the probability that the system being described is in a particular state at a moment in time. That state need not even be a position, it might be a charge, or a spin, or a speed, or any combination of these. Basically quantum systems oscillate between their possible states, they don't oscillate in space-time like matter affected by a wave does.
This also makes it very hard to conceptualize what it means for these wavefunctions to interfere. So the simple picture of "wave A and wave B are pushing the water up at the same time in the same location, so the water rises higher when both waves are there" is much harder to apply to probability oscillations than a direct comparison makes it out to be.
An additional problem when comparing wavefunctions to waves in a medium is that there is no source of a wavefunction. Any system you're analyzing has a single wavefunction, that assigns probability amplitudes to every possible configuration of that system. You can decompose the system's wavefunction as a sum of multiple wavefunctions corresponding to certain measurables, but this is an arbitrary choice: any such decomposition is exactly as valid. In matter waves, if I drop two stones in water at different locations, the water surface's movements can be described as a single wave, but there is a natural decomposition into two interfering waves each caused by one of the stones. There is no similar natural decomposition that quantum mechanics would suggest for a similar quantum mechanical system.
lmm
> when a water wave gets pushed through two slits, it breaks into two separate water waves, one coming from each slit, and those two waves push the water up and down at the same time at different locations.
What physically observable distinction are you drawing? The points of water on the far sides of the slits will have a certain height at each point at each time, forming the interference pattern you'd expect. You can decompose that function into a sum of two separate waves, if you want, but you don't have to. And exactly the same thing is true of the quantum mechanical wavefunction for a particle passing through a pair of slits.
> A wavefunction amplitude does not represent a displacement in any kind of medium. They represent a measure of the probability that the system being described is in a particular state at a moment in time. That state need not even be a position, it might be a charge, or a spin, or a speed, or any combination of these. Basically quantum systems oscillate between their possible states, they don't oscillate in space-time like matter affected by a wave does.
I don't think that's a real distinction. Water height is a different dimension from (x,y) position and it behaves very differently; that the wave is moving across the surface and that the surface is moving up and down are orthogonal facts, the reason the former is movement isn't that the latter is movement. A classical electromagnetic wave moves even though it isn't in a medium that's moving (and so does e.g. a fir wave).
> You can decompose the system's wavefunction as a sum of multiple wavefunctions corresponding to certain measurables, but this is an arbitrary choice: any such decomposition is exactly as valid. In matter waves, if I drop two stones in water at different locations, the water surface's movements can be described as a single wave, but there is a natural decomposition into two interfering waves each caused by one of the stones. There is no similar natural decomposition that quantum mechanics would suggest for a similar quantum mechanical system.
Again I don't think this is a real distinction. You have exactly that natural decomposition in the QM system - it's not the only valid decomposition, but it is a valid one and it has some properties that make it nice to work with. And similarly for dropping stones in the water, infinitely many other decompositions are possible and equally valid (e.g. decomposing as two copies of a wave where you dropped two half-sized stones into the water).
tsimionescu
In classical mechanical waves like water waves or sound waves, the wave equations are just an approximation of the "real" movement happening. You can theoretically get the precise results of the movement of every part of the medium by just applying Newton's laws of motion to all of the particles of the medium (assuming they're coarse grained enough that you can ignore quantum effects, of course). That is, you can model the surface of the water and the rocks as little balls of mass connected by ideal springs and such, and you'll see that the movement of the water is directly caused by the two rocks, whose contact with the water pushes it here and there. And so, the "real" picture is two separate waves, and any other way to model the system, even if mathematically equivalent, is artificial in some sense.
Even for EM waves, the classical theory explains them somewhat mechanistically, as an interaction between electrical and magnetic forces that originate from the charged sources and self-propagate.
There is no similar picture you can draw for the quantum mechanical wavefunction. It's the base reality of the system, and it turns out in fact that Newton's laws can be derived as an approximatiom of the wavefunction. But there isn't any kind of "reason" for which the wavefunction does what it does, like there is for the water waves. And so all models for separating the wavefunction into different components is just as "natural" as any other.
mNovak
I agree things like the slit experiments are easily explained by classical waves, and thus seem to point to particles being waves; and I see no inherent reason to bring up probability distributions and such to answer that observation.
Where I'm struggling is that classical waves will always spread out spherically, and their energy must do so too. The issue here being that if a photon is a minimal quanta of energy, but is just a classical wave, what prevents it from spreading out and having sub-photon energy? Or if indeed it does, how does that sub-photon quantity get measured? -- if these experiments claim to be emitting a time-series of single photons, classical wave interference won't occur (again, being separated in time).
lmm
> The issue here being that if a photon is a minimal quanta of energy, but is just a classical wave, what prevents it from spreading out and having sub-photon energy? Or if indeed it does, how does that sub-photon quantity get measured? -- if these experiments claim to be emitting a time-series of single photons, classical wave interference won't occur (again, being separated in time).
Right, so that part is new and "spooky" - quantum phenomena are quantised (hence the name). The photon does spread out as a wave, there is in a sense half a photon heading towards the top half of the screen and half a photon heading towards the bottom half of the screen - but then when it hits the screen what we see is a single whole photon that hits either the top half or the bottom half (or, perhaps, half of an us sees a photon hit the top half and half of an us sees a photon hit the bottom half). This is the "wave-particle duality" and while it does fall out of the equations, it's definitely unfamiliar compared to classical physics.
If you want to fully understand, all I can suggest is "work your way through a QM textbook" - every popular explanation I've seen has messed it up one way or another. But it sounds like you're understanding correctly, and thinking for yourself as well - you've hit upon the actual essence of it, the kernel that really is hard.
TeMPOraL
I don't know how fringe this is, but Huygens Optics gives a possible answer here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tMP5Pbx8I4s. TL;DW: if you assume certain non-linear properties of vacuum as a medium, it seems possible for light (EM waves) to self-contain spatially instead of spreading out, and such trapped energy seems, for all intents and purposes, to behave like particles.
Again, IANAPhysicist, so I don't know what to think of that video, but the channel seems legit, and the explanation is beautiful in its simplicity.
scotty79
My personal interpretation is that elementary particles physically are those waves and never anything else. Those waves interact with each other with probabilistic events exchanging some energy and momentum and reshaping each other. They can get narrowed down if they exchange energy/momentum or get spread apart, for example through interactions on the edge of an object. What's completely virtual for me is the idea of pointlike particles occupying some specific location and having some specific momentum. Almost everything we know contradicts this idea, and yet we cling to it.
adornKey
I think Craig Bohren wrote in one of his books, that to get anything calculated and done the waves are all you need. Particles are nice for some kind of visualization, but they don't really help getting things done. I liked that.
Instead of particles I like to view the interactions like the forming of a lightning in a thunderstorm. The energy-field builds up, And at some point of contact the energy is being released in a single lightning strike.
What I still wonder is, if the interaction really depletes the energy-field instantly in a single point, or if there is more going on (on different timescales - maybe with speeds not related to the speed of light).
Willingham
I’ve always wondered, has there ever been a definitive experiment where one photon hits a slit and on the other side two photons come out, but then when you add a photon observer, it immediately only comes out on one side? Or has the proof always been mathematical rather than a live experiment?
Edit: Thank you all for the responses, it has been very educational. It appears I was misunderstanding the most important aspect of the double slit experiment. A photon is a wave function when unobserved, it literally goes through both slits and creates an interference pattern like how waves in water would. However, when observed at the slit, or at the detector screen, the wave function collapses and only one photon(billiard like particle) will be detected.
out_of_protocol
Double slit experiment did happen and totally reproducible even then photons/electrons are sent by one at a time.
"two photons come out" part makes no sense though. On a target side, there's always single hit after single photon/electron, but distribution of theses hits as if said electron got through both slits and interfered with itself
P.S. the funny thing is - this works on any small thingy, measured up to 2000 atoms-big, as if it's the property of the universe itself
namaria
The experiment working on clusters of atoms is news to me and I loved getting to know about that. But the thing that really breaks my mind is the experiment that proves that the behavior depends on the possibility of getting information from which slit the particle went through. So we can rule out the act of measurement itself interfering with the behavior of the particle.
They did it by splitting a beam of particles into a pair of entangled particles and then setting up a way to measure the polarity of one of them after the point in time where it even hits the final screen. If you measure the polarity then, after the other stream of particles from the beam had already had time to make the pattern, the pattern will be two clusters. If you don't, it goes back to an interference pattern.
That one really cemented the notion in my head that this is just how the Universe is and not some local weirdness with particles and measurements.
wruza
I think Sabine explained this social effect few years ago. I know she's a little controversial, but the key thing in the video (as opposed to all other videos about DSE on the internet) was that you don't get "two clusters" actually. They are both statistical parts of a single [non-]interference pattern. "||" is a lie. I'm not in a physics rebel camp and don't prefer Sabine either, but after that I sort of lost trust in the interpretations that can't even get the resulting picture right. I even suspect that showing dumbed results amplifies "wow" effect and monetizes better.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RQv5CVELG3U
This is the video if you're interested. Again, I'm no physicist and don't know if explanations are legit or statistically correct. But that little || trick that all other popsci videos play on you, that's a true concern.
canadiantim
Hadn’t hear that, that one is wild
bad_haircut72
I would love to try this experiment with something basketball sized out in space. Like we build an enormous basketball detector behind a double slit inside an unobservable black box. If thr basketball started acting like a wave I would be sooo freaked out
whatshisface
The largest double-slit projectile I know of is C-60, a soccer-ball shaped molecule of sixty atoms.
https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/2058-7058/12/11/4
idontwantthis
I don’t know what it’s called but I read about a proposed experiment to do it in space with macrosized glass beads.
rusk
If the slits are big enough, isn’t that just gravity?
judofyr
Are you referring to the double-slit experiment? If so, yes: It has always been an experiment. The experiment came before any theory explaining the behavior AFAIK. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Double-slit_experiment
shagie
The double slit experiment has been replicated even with fairly hefty molecules.
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41567-019-0663-9
> Here, we report interference of a molecular library of functionalized oligoporphyrins with masses beyond 25,000 Da and consisting of up to 2,000 atoms, by far the heaviest objects shown to exhibit matter-wave interference to date.
It would be awkward to say that the 2000 atom molecule comes out of both sides... but it does, until you look.
The double slit experiment is not a duplication cheat of reality... it's weirder than that.
mock-possum
Am I misunderstanding the significant of the double slit experiment?
I thought the takeaway wasn’t that the particle comes out both sides, the implication is that the behavior of a single particle is the same as the behavior of multiple particles - that is to say, it appears to be an interference pattern, even when there should be no other particles to interferes with the single one.
l33tman
No you're understanding correctly (I think), the behaviour of a single detected particle depends on all possible paths it could take to get to the detection.
This is fundamental to 100 years of quantum mechanics and underlies most of physics including all semiconductors, materials science, chemistry, lasers, etc. The double slit experiment is just a very good illustration of the principle boiled down to its essentials, which is why it's everywhere in pop-sci. It makes for more accessible story than describing how a hydrogen atom works.
ryoshu
Live experiments have been done and they get really weird: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed-choice_quantum_eraser
marcosdumay
What does "one photon hits a slit and on the other side two photons come out" mean?
There is no photon multiplication happening on the double slit.
galaxyLogic
One photon hits the slit and one photon comes out. It is only if you repeat the experiment many times that you start to see a strange wawe-like pattern in where the photons hit.
It is as if every photon that went through the slit is somehow aware of all other photons that did so too so each photon can choose the (random) position where it hits on the wall behind the slit such that together they look like as if a WAWE went through the slit.
That is (one reason) why they call it "Quantum Weirdness". God is playing dice with us
marcosdumay
No. The same photon is aware of all alternative paths it can take, without creating or interacting with any other photon.
There's no photon multiplication, and no "all other photons" changing their path.
There is some inter-photon interaction because they are bosons. But it's not significant enough to impact the multi-slit experiment. And the experiment works exactly the same way if you send only one photon at a time.
chowells
> It is as if every photon that went through the slit is somehow aware of all other photons that did so too
Why isn't it just that there's a probability density function that describes the aggregate outcomes of a large number of samples from a random process? Why is "memory" involved?
DanielVZ
I really don’t understand the topic much but this veritasium video is quite eye opening and goes into further depth than any layman explanation I’ve ever seen in the topic: https://youtu.be/qJZ1Ez28C-A?si=6gSQYcJPpaSIt1x1
lmm
> I’ve always wondered, has there ever been a definitive experiment where one photon hits a slit and on the other side two photons come out, but then when you add a photon observer, it immediately only comes out on one side? Or has the proof always been mathematical rather than a live experiment?
Only one photon comes out, but it can interfere with itself if it had the possibility of going through either slit.
That nuance aside, the Quantum Eraser Experiment is a real physical experiment that covers what I think you're asking about. If you send photons through double slits in a setup where you can tell which slit the photon went through, you don't get an interference pattern. If you can't tell, you do get the interference pattern.
Etheryte
The experiment came first, all the rest of it came after to try and figure out why the results are as weird as they are.
stared
I always feel that we are inclined to ask this question because we want to treat the wavefunction as if it were a probability distribution. While they share some properties, fundamentally they are not the same thing.
In typical probability, we deal with an ensemble of fixed states, or at least phenomena that can be simulated as such.
In quantum physics, the wavefunction is fundamental. The question "what was the exact path?" is meaningless. In particular, if we take the approach of Feynman path integrals, we find that particles take many paths - including circular paths through each slit - before arriving somewhere else where they interact (i.e., become entangled) with, say, an electron in the screen.
Sure, we may consider different experiments (e.g., quantum erasers, see https://lab.quantumflytrap.com/lab/quantum-eraser), but analogies with deterministic particles are whimsical - sometimes they work, sometimes not.
bop24
So I only have a B.S. in physics but my impression is that the weird parts of quantum mechanics are fundamentally a measurement problem. At the quantum level, we are very very limited in what we can use to measure properties of a quantum system - which is why we resort to probabilities. Wave functions are just a mathematical representation of a physical property that are (only?) ever operated on using quantum operators which result in a statistical distribution. Because they are so closely tied to probabilities I struggle with interpretations that try to say that perhaps these wave functions are something physical and based in reality (i.e. they are in superposition so particles must take on every possible state at once). An analogy I use is its like when we talk about sample sizes of a population of people, what is an ‘average person’? An average person is not something physical we can pick out, it exists in abstract. I’m curious if anyone with more experience in QM can shed light on how sound my thinking is here.
GoblinSlayer
Sounds like Einstein's hidden variables theory: below wave function picture there's more fundamental newtonian reality that produces the higher level wave function behavior, but is itself inaccessible due to insufficiently fine instruments, aka hidden variables. "God doesn't throw dice" is about that.
stared
> Wave functions are just a mathematical representation of a physical property that are (only?) ever operated on using quantum operators which result in a statistical distribution.
It is not correct— at least not unless you subscribe to the Copenhagen interpretation. Yet, while this interpretation is a simple heuristic for interaction with big systems (e.g., a photon hits a CCD array), none of the quantum physicists I know treat it seriously (for that matter, I have a PhD in quantum optics theory).
I mean, at some certain level, everything is "just a mathematical representation" - in the spirit of "all models are wrong but some are useful". But the wavefunction is more fundamental than measurement. The other can be thought of as a particle entangling with a system so large that, for statistical reasons, it becomes irreversible - because of chaos, not fundamental rules.
For some materials, I recommend materials on decoherence by WH Zurek, e.g. https://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0105127. Some other references (here a shameless self ad) in https://www.spiedigitallibrary.org/journals/optical-engineer... - mostly in the introduction and, speaking about interpretations, section 3.7.
EDIT: or actually even simpler toy model of measurement, look at the Schrodinger cat in this one: https://arxiv.org/abs/2312.07840
tsimionescu
The measurement, i.e. the Born rule, is just as fundamental as the wavefunction. The wavefunction doesn't mean anything on its own, it's not a measurable quantity that can be used to make any observable prediction whatsoever. If I claim that the wavefunction amplitude for some electron being at some location at some point in time is 1/2(1+i), how would you verify this prediction without invoking the Born rule?
bop24
Thank you, I will look into these resources
l33tman
You're partially correct, but describing it in that way makes it sound like if you could "just look a little bit closer" the statistics would disappear, which doesn't happen. So it's more subtle than this. Fundamentally it's because QM doesn't use additive probabilities, but rather additive amplitudes which are complex numbers, and the probability is the square of the sum of these, so you can get interference between amplitudes. You can never get interference by adding probabilities.
In the dual slit experiment this is visible as you can't get the interference effects by summing the probabilities for "particle through slit 1" and "particle through slit 2" but rather you need to sum the amplitudes of the processes.
Working physicists (since 100 years) just do this, there is no practical need to interpret it further, but it would be cool if someone could figure out some prediction/experiment mismatch that does indeed require tweaking this!
HarHarVeryFunny
It's always seemed to me that these types of question only exist because we're considering a choice between two imperfect models. If we had a better model of what a "particle" really is, then there would be no dualing models nor paradox.
Do we really have to choose between wave and particle? What does the "particle" model bring to the table that a localized (wavelength-sized) wave/vibration could not?
jfengel
Being pedantic about the language, there is only one model, and effectively every physicist agrees on it.
What they differ about is the interpretation of that model. The equations are the same, but differ in what the variables refer to in the real world. It's really a matter of solving the equation for X vs Y, saying which one is independent and which is dependent.
The purpose is to take the fact that none of the variables correspond directly to anything we have any experience with. The best we can hope for is to isolate part of it and say "this much is like this thing we understand, but there's an additional thing that we'll treat as a correction".
We can try to take the whole thing seriously, and just call it "a quantum thingy" which is not like anything else. This is sometimes called "shut up and calculate", but even that makes assumptions about what things are feasible to calculate and which are hard. That skews your understanding even if you're trying to let it speak for itself.
simpaticoder
>there is only one model
There is one set of observations, and many many models to describe them: Schrödinger equation formulation, matrix mechanics (Heisenberg, Born, and Jordan), path integral formulation (Feynman), phase space formulation, density matrix formulation, QFT or second quantization, variational formulation, pilot wave theory aka de Broglie-Bohm theory, Hamilton-Jacobi formulation, PT-symmetric quantum mechanics, Dirac equation formulation (well, not really independent, just for spin 1/2 particles).
They all give the same results, and are therefore mathematically equivalent, but different models tend to be associated with different interpretations:
Schrödinger Equation : Copenhagen, Bohmian Mechanics, Many-Worlds
Matrix Mechanics : Copenhagen
Path Integral : Many-Worlds, Stochastic
Density Matrix: Ensemble, Decoherence-based
Second Quantization : Many-Worlds
Pilot Wave Theory : Bohmian Mechanics
Consistent Histories : Decoherence-based
Relational QM : Relational Interpretation
Stochastic Models : Stochastic Interpretations, GRW (Ghirardi–Rimini–Weber) Collapse
gus_massa
We have a better model, but it's an ecuation so horrible that nobody want to solve it.
Luckly, sometimes the exact solution can be very accuately aproximated with a wave ecuation.
Luckly, sometimes the exact solution can be very accuately aproximated with a particle ecuation.
(Sometimes, the exact solution can be aproximated saying that the lowest energy state is an eigenvector of the Schoedinger equation. Is that a wave? It's not localized, but not very wavy.)
But neither are the exact solution, just aproximations that solve tpgether 99% of the experiment.
It's difficult to explain, because to explaing the detials you need like two years of algebra and calculus and then like another 2 years of physics, and now you get a degree in physics.
It's possible to solve the difficult ecuation only in very simple cases like electron-electron colissions, if you allow some cheating and a tiny error. For more complicated systems like electron-muon there are some problems. And for more complicated systems, you get more technical problems and more aproximations.
tim-kt
The photoelectric effect [0] can be explained if light behaves as discrete particles, but not when it's a wave since a higher amplitude does not imply a higher energy transfer.
wasabi991011
You can explain the photoelectric effect with classical light (i.e. as EM waves) as long as you properly quantize the atomic energy levels. This is often called s semi-classical model.
However, photo-detections with sub-poissonian statistics cannot be explained under this semi-classical model, but it can be explained with properly quantized EM field (i.e. with photons).
For reference, see Mandel and Wolf's Quantum Optics textbook.
rusk
If I emit a bass signal at a low amplitude, but then emit it at a higher amplitude, I can see the effect on a glass of water on the table. What’s happening here if amplitude does not carry power?
My understanding is that theoretically energy transfer is a function of wavelength.
tsimionescu
The point here is that the total displacement of water caused by a sound wave depends on both the amplitude of the wave, and its frequency, with no limit: if the wave has high enough amplitude, it will displace water even if the wave is very low frequency.
However, this is not true for EM interactions. If you shine infrared light on a solar panel, you'll see 0 current from it, even with an extremely powerful source of light (at some point the material might heat up enough it starts showing some thermo-electric effect, but that's a different thing). However, if you take even a very low intensity ultraviolet source, you'll see a measurable current right away. This is the unexpected behavior that quantized interactions have, which can't be reproduced with non-qunatized waves like sound waves.
tim-kt
Sorry, my last sentence wasn't formulated well. Yes, a wave with higher amplitude (or one could say "intensity") has a higher energy. The photoelectric effect happens when you shine light with "enough" energy on some material such that the atoms of the material are ionized, i. e. electrons are freed. You need a minimal energy for this and if you use dim light with a low frequency, you will not see the effect. Now, if you increase the frequency of the light, you can measure electrons. If, instead, you make the light brighter, that is, increase the amplitude of the wave (if it were a wave), you don't see electrons. So at least in this experiment, light does not function as a wave.
HarHarVeryFunny
OK - a bit like the fairground game of trying to knock coconuts off a stand by throwing a wooden ball at them. It doesn't matter how many balls you are throwing per minute (total energy being delivered) if the energy of each ball doesn't cross the threshold to knock the coconut off.
OTOH, the energy of a photon is such an abstract concept (not like the kinetic energy of a ball) that I'm not sure it really helps explain it.
tim-kt
Well, there is a saying about spin of an electron. Imagine that you have a ball and it's spinning. Except, it's not a ball. And it's not really spinning.
GoblinSlayer
Particles aren't necessary for it, any quantization is sufficient.
tim-kt
Sure, I'm using the word "particle" loosely.
aqme28
We do have a better model, but the mathematical model doesn’t analogize well to the real-life concepts we’re used to.
kromem
In video games that have procedural generation, there's often a seed function that predicts a continuous geometry.
But in order to track state changes from free agents, when you get close to that geometry the engine converts it to discrete units.
This duality of continuous foundation becoming discrete units around the point of observation/interaction is not the result of dueling models, but a unified system.
I sometimes wonder if we'd struggle with interpreting QM the same way if there wasn't a paradigm blindness with the interpretations all predating the advances in models in information systems.
IshKebab
Precisely. The question "is it a particle or a wave" is wrong. It's neither. It's a particle-wave. Something that behaves like a classical wave or particle depending on the situation, but it doesn't switch between them or anything like that. It's not a "particle that has interference" or a "wave with a location".
Classic labelling issue.
canjobear
> What does the "particle" model bring to the table that a localized (wavelength-sized) wave/vibration could not?
A lot of the article is about this. Start with the section "The Wave Function of Two Particles and a Single Door". The wave packet view can't explain why you don't for example see a "particle" (that is, a dot on a detector) show up simultaneously having gone through two different doors. You have to think about it in terms of a wave in the space of possible joint particle positions.
fallingknife
I also don't understand this. AFAIK "particle" in this context means quantized unit rather than contiguous solid object. And I see no reason why a quantized unit of a wave can't propagate through two slits simultaneously. But my level of understanding here is YouTube level so if you know more please correct me.
ithkuil
I trust the physics works out.
The problem in these discussions is how to build an intuition about the underlying physical model.
I fail to have an intuition of how can a quantized unit of wave propagate through both slits.
I know that the equations say that the probability of finding the particle at a given location is given by the amplitude squared of the wave function (Born rule).
The image that a "quantized unit of wave propagates through two slits simultaneously" doesn't help me build any further intuition.
Do the two parts going through the two different paths carry half the unit? Clearly that's not the case otherwise they wouldn't be quanta anymore. So does it mean that the entire wavefront is "one unit" no matter how spread out? But in that case, "one unit" of what?
HarHarVeryFunny
If one just sends photons through a narrow single slit, then the pattern that builds up on the screen (if you send multiple photons, and record their positions) will be a banded diffraction pattern.
If you have two slits, with a detector to determine which slit the photon went thru, then it'll behave as if it only went thru one of the two slits, at random, and what'll build up on the screen will be the two (slit A + slit B) overlayed diffraction patterns.
Finally, if you have two slits with NO detector, then what will build up on the screen is the interference pattern as if the photon had gone thru both slits simultaneously and the two resulting banded diffraction patterns interfered with each other. So, what SEEMS to be happening in this case is that the quantum state of the system post-slit is that of the photon simultaneously having gone thru both slits, each slit having diverted it per diffraction, and then these diffraction patterns (probabilities) interferering. Wave collapse can only be happening after this interference (if it was before then there would only be one diffraction pattern and no interference), presumably when quantum state interacts with the screen.
So, yeah, it seems that the "photon" does "go" through both slits, but this is a quantum representation, not a classical one.
gitfan86
Particles don't exist. We just perceive waves with high decoherence rates as particles. Things we call objects effectively have a 100% decoherence rate. Things we call waves like light have low decoherence rates.
But underneath it is all quantum mechanics.
polishdude20
What's a decoherence rate?
whatshisface
Decoherence is the process that makes it impractically difficult for an experiment to be designed that makes your observations the two interfering possibilities in some kind of double-slit experiment.
Interpreting this in the many-particle case is more difficult, but the basic idea is that due to single-particle uncertainty, you can't have a definite number of particles indexed by momentum and a definite number of particles indexed by position at the same time. If I had 100 particles that were definitely at x=0, in terms of momentum they'd be spread out over the range of possibilities unpredictably.
moi2388
There is a difference between them actually having these momentum, and your knowledge about these attributes.
The Heisenberg uncertainty principle is not about particles. It’s about statistics and our knowledge about something.
gitfan86
How frequently a wave would go through just 1 of the slits. If you threw a baseball at a wall with two baseball sized slits it would basically always go through just one of the slits. You would never see an interference pattern.
This is because a baseball is interacting with other matter on the way to the slit. A photon on the other hand might not interact with any matter and it stays as a wave and you can see an interference pattern on the other side.
SiempreViernes
I'm not sure very many people will actually be helped by reading the linked discussion, which appears both too technical to be clear for newcomers to Quantum mechanics while also not providing any interesting detail for the more experienced reader.
This seems to be entire argument:
> But the wave function is a wave in the space of possibilities, and not in physical space.
Which is fair enough as an initial claim, but it doesn't really get motivated further, or at least not before I got bored reading and started skimming.
aap_
For a single particle they are easy to confuse. A wave function ψ(t,x) for a single particle gives a probability amplitude to find the particle at coordinate x at time t. In this case one can imagine an amplitude at each point in space and time, like a field. This interpretation however completely breaks down once you introduce a second particle: the wave function ψ(t,x1,x2) gives a probability amplitude to find particle 1 at x1 and particle 2 at x2 at time t. This no longer admits an interpretation of assigning some value to locations in space. Intuitively one might think you get one amplitude for each particle at some location but that's not how QM works, so we shouldn't think of the wave function as living in physical space.
SiempreViernes
But if you aren't trying to map the wave function to physical space somehow you are essentially saying that the central construct of your theory has no direct relation to the actual physical processes happening "underneath".
This reduces to a kind of "shut up and calculate" attitude, so it seems poor starting point from which to write an interpretation text.
tsimionescu
Space is a part of the wavefunction, as the article explains clearly. The wave function describes where the particles can be in physical space. And, the wave function has the same shape as the wave equations for traditional mechanical waves, like a sound wave or a sea wave.
However, if a classical three-dimensional wave equation describes how matter osciallates in three-dimensional physical space, a quantum wavefunction doesn't do that. Quantum particles don't oscillate in physical space like that. A three-dimensional wavefunction might describe three particles' positions along a one-dimensional line, and it's oscillations are oscillations of probability, not position. The particles don't move, say, up and down. Their probability to be here or there on that 1-d line waxes and wanes.
This is what the article is trying to explain: the basic mathematics of quantum mechanics, the definition of the wavefunction. The value of a wavefunction for the position of three particles is not a position in space at a moment in time. It is a (complex) probability for the position of every particle at that moment.
This only seems confusing when looking at wavefunctions that describe positions. But wavefunctions often have many more observables, such as spin or polarization. A wavefunctions for two electrons moving around on a plane will not be a two-dimensional wave. It will be a wave in a six-dimensional space, whose axis may be "particle 1 has spin up/down, particle 2 has spin up/down, particle 1 position along x axis, particle 2 position along x axis, particle 1 position along y axis, particle two position along y axis".
aap_
I morally agree, but not quite: think of the wave function as not more than a bookkeeping device. It does get the job done but be careful to ascribe it too high an ontological status! The path integral formulation seems a lot more natural to me and it does not need a wave function, instead you can derive it and treat it as a bookkeeping device. The way I think about it is that it's an attempt to deterministically model non-deterministic behavior: you "pretend" that the system is deterministic by keeping track of all the possible ways it could have evolved in time. sure enough, once you make a measurement this probability distribution "collapses" and you find out what is actually the case.
whatshisface
That's true, but it's also true of the classical probability distribution p(t,x1,x2).
tsimionescu
Yes, which is exactly the point. The main difference is that the wave function has a complex value with norm <= 1, while a probability distribution function has a real value <= 1.
bryan0
I had the same reaction. If you make it to the end he concludes with:
> The wave function’s pattern can travel across regions of possibility space that are associated with the slits.
Which to me conflicts with his emphatic “no” at the beginning of the article because this implies you can define some mapping between the physical and probability space. And of course you can because if you couldn’t the theory would not be physically predictive.
tsimionescu
His point from the beginning is this: the particle described by the wavefunction can't be said to move through both slits at once, because ψ(t, x, y) has a single value for a particular x and y at a particular time. The particle has non-0 probability for both x, y1, t and for x, y2, t, of course - but that just means the particle has non-0 probability to pass through either slit.
And as for saying that the wave moves through both slits, that also doesn't make sense, by the very definition of the wave function - it's a wave in probability space, not in space, so it just doesn't move through space.
lmm
> And as for saying that the wave moves through both slits, that also doesn't make sense, by the very definition of the wave function - it's a wave in probability space, not in space, so it just doesn't move through space.
I don't think that's a valid argument. Imagine a regular water wave, i.e. a wavefunction h = h(x, y, t) describing the height of the water at position (x, y) at time t. You could say "this is a wave in height space, not in space, so it just doesn't move through space" and in a certain sense that's true. But obviously there is something that does "move" through "space" to the extent that anything can ever be said to do so.
bryan0
I’m with you on point 1, (I think this is also obvious from experiment because you will never measure a particle at both slits).
for point 2 it seems you can define a mapping from the physical space to probability space. Saying that the wave doesn’t “move through” space might be technically correct but also seems like semantics on the definition of the phrase “move through” ?
criddell
Considering a particle is an excitation of a quantum field, the space of possibilities could be seen as the only space there is. At least that’s what I think (but don’t know for sure) that the mathematical universe hypothesis people posit.
beyondCritics
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=qJZ1Ez28C-A I had learned about the double slit experiment in school, but in my mind it was something of a theoretical construct. This veritasium video demonstrates, that quantum waves are very real and tangible. This is how physics should be.
falcor84
I'm a bit confused by the argument posed here:
> Figure 4: The wrong wave function! Even though it appears as though this wave function shows two particles, one trailing the other, similar to Fig. 3, it instead shows a single particle with definite speed but a superposition of two different locations (i.e. here OR there.)
I understand that if treat the act of adding two particles' wave functions as creating a new wave function for one particle, then we have this problem, essentially by definition. But it got me thinking - would it not make sense to treat the result as an expected value, such that we could then measure how many particles are likely to be to the right of the door at each point in time?
nathan_compton
It isn't by definition, presuming the relationship between quantum mechanics and reality. You can have a _two particle_ state and a _one particle state_ with non-trivial probability of being in two places. They are distinct things. The key idea here (and really, in Quantum Mechanics generally) is that superpositions are important things in the theory. This is the statement that if you have a wave function for one situation and another wave function for another than the sum of the two is also, necessarily, a valid wave function for a physically realizable system.
This is different from a classical probability. Suppose we simply don't know whether the baseball was fired from HERE or from THERE. In a classical situation, we can carry forward our understanding of the situation in time by simply calculating what the classical particles would do independently. In quantum mechanics the mechanics are of the wave function itself, not of the things we measure. We cannot get the right answer by imagining first that we measure the particle in one location and calculate forward and then by imagining we measure the particle in another and calculating forward and then adding the results. It isn't how the theory works. We must time evolve the wave function to predict the statistical behavior of measurement in the future.
baq
Isn't it one of the 'does it matter if you didn't interact with it?' questions, and keep in mind 'observation' at quantum scales is to a good approximation synonymous to 'interaction'.
eptcyka
Approximation?
One can only measure by interacting, there is no other way.
maunke
If you want to play with quantum wave packets, I built a quantum Web-based Simulation tool for non-relativistic quantum mechanics in 2016: https://quantum-simulation.de
The split-operator method for the numerical solution of the time-dependent Schrödinger equation is used to simulate the propagation of a Gaussian wave packet in arbitrarily adjustable potentials.
According to modern QFT, there are no particles except as an approximation. There are no fields except as mathematical formalisms. There's no locality. There is instead some kind of interaction of graph nodes, representing quantum interactions, via "entanglement" and "decoherence".
In this model, there are no "split particle" paradoxes, because there are no entities that resemble the behavior of macroscopic bodies, with our intuitions about them.
Imagine a Fortran program, with some neat index-based FOR loops, and some per-element computations on a bunch of big arrays. When you look at its compiled form, you notice that the neat loops are now something weird, produced by automatic vectorization. If you try to find out how it runs, you notice that the CPU not only has several cores that run parts of the loop in parallel, but the very instructions in one core run out of order, while still preserving the data dependency invariants.
"But did the computation of X(I) run before or after the computation of X(I+1)?!", you ask in desperation. You cannot tell. It depends. The result is correct though, your program has no bugs and computes what it should. It's counter-intuitive, but the underlying hardware reality is counter-intuitive. It's not illogical or paradoxical though.